The fact that it started using oil after running amsoil...Like i said it could of been a coincidence. I just thought it was weird it happened right after he started running this oil. I know i wont ever run the stuff, i dont want to chance it.
How do you know that within 100 engine hours, the only factor that caused was the oil?
Is that fact falsifiable?
By what mechanism was the oil itself causing such abnormal wear in the motor to cause that level of blow-by?
Upon tear-down and careful inspection of the motor (right?), were the internal parts exhibiting signs of abnormal, oil-induced signs of wear?
All I am trying to point out is that you're equating correlation with causation. Last time I blew a motor, it had been in the saltwater only 20 hours prior. That doesn't mean the saltwater caused it.
Claiming that abnormal engine wear within 100 hours - 2 months - after changing the oil was caused by that oil, without any supporting evidence, would get you laughed out of any court.
You may have a gut feeling about it, but you should realize that that's all it is, and nothing more.